Correct answer: B. Bending or lifting

Low back pain that radiates into one leg (sciatica) is consistent with herniated lumbar disk. The nurse assesses the client to see whether the pain is aggravated by events that increase intraspinal pressure, such as bending, lifting, sneezing, and coughing, or by lifting the leg straight up while supine (straight leg-raising test). Bed rest, heat (or sometimes ice), and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs usually relieve back pain.

Correct answer: C. Temperature of 101.6� F orally

The nursing assessment conducted after spinalsurgery is similar to that done after other surgical procedures. For this specific type of surgery, the nurse assesses the neurovascular status of the lower extremities, watches for signs and symptoms of infection, and inspects the surgicalsite for evidence of cerebrospinal fluid leakage (drainage is clear and tests positive for glucose). A mild temperature is expected after insertion of hardware, but a temperature of 101.6� F should be reported.

Correct answer: C. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts

Infection and pancytopenia are side/adverse effects of etanercept. Laboratory studies are performed prior to and during medication treatment. The appearance of abnormal white blood cell counts and abnormal platelet counts can alert the nurse to a potentially life-threatening infection. Injection site itching is a common occurrence following administration. A metallic taste and loss of appetite are not common signs of side/adverse effects of this medication.

Correct answer: C. Kidney disease

Colchicine is used with caution in older clients, debilitated clients, and clients with cardiac, kidney, or gastrointestinal disease.

Correct answer: A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

Precautions need to be taken with the administration of alendronate to prevent gastrointestinal side/adverse effects (especially esophageal irritation) and to increase absorption of the medication. The medication needs to be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. The client should not eat or drink anything for 30 minutes following administration and should not lie down after taking the medication.

Correct answer: A. Avoid the use of alcohol.

Baclofen is a skeletal muscle relaxant. The client should be cautioned against the use of alcohol and other central nervous system depressants because baclofen potentiates the depressant activity of these agents. Constipation rather than diarrhea is a side/adverse effect. Restriction of fluids is not necessary, but the client should be warned that urinary retention can occur. Fatigue is related to a central nervous system effect that is most intense during the early phase of therapy and diminishes with continued medication use. The client does not need to notify the HCP about fatigue.

Correct answer: D. Liver function tests

Dose-related liver damage is the most serious adverse effect of dantrolene. To reduce the risk of liver damage, liver function tests should be performed before treatment and throughout the treatment interval. Dantrolene is administered at the lowest effective dosage for the shortest time necessary.

Correct answer: D. An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy

Because emotionalstress frequently exacerbates the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis, the absence of symptoms is a positive finding. DMARDs are given to slow the progression of joint degeneration. In addition, an improvement in the range of motion after 3 months of therapy with normal blood work is a positive finding. Temperature elevation and inflammation and irritation at the medication injection site could indicate signs of infection.

Correct answer: C. Bradycardia

Intravenous administration of methocarbamol can cause hypotension and bradycardia. The nurse needs to monitor for these side/adverse effects.

Correct answer: A. Wearing a gown and gloves

Gowns and gloves are required if the nurse anticipates contact with soiled items such as those with wound drainage, or is caring for a client who is incontinent with diarrhea or a client who has an ileostomy or colostomy. Masks are not required unless droplet or airborne precautions are necessary. Regardless of the amount of wound drainage, a gown and gloves must be worn.

Correct answer: C. Document the event, interventions, and client’s response.

An anaphylactic reaction requires immediate action, starting with quickly assessing the client’s respiratory status. Although the health care provider and the Rapid Response Team must be notified immediately, the nurse must stay with the client. Oxygen is administered and an IV of normalsaline is started and infused per HCP prescription. Documentation of the event, actions taken, and client outcomes needs to be done. The head of the bed should be elevated if the client’s blood pressure is normal.

Correct answer: C. An autoimmune disease that causes blistering in the epidermis

Pemphigus is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering in the epidermis. The client has large flaccid blisters (bullae). Because the blisters are in the epidermis, they have a thin covering of skin and break easily, leaving large denuded areas of skin. On initial examination, clients may have crusting areas instead of intact blisters.

Correct answer: B. Protecting the client from infection

The client with immunodeficiency has inadequate or absence of immune bodies and is at risk for infection. The priority nursing intervention would be to protect the client from infection.

Correct answer: D. Ask the client if he ever sustained a bee sting in the past.

In some types of allergies, a reaction occurs only on second and subsequent contacts with the allergen. The appropriate action, therefore, would be to ask the client if he ever experienced a bee sting in the past.

Correct answer: B. Hairdressers

Individuals most at risk for developing a latex allergy include health care workers, individuals who work in the rubber industry, or those who have had multiple surgeries, have spina bifida, wear gloves frequently, such as food handlers, hairdressers, and auto mechanics, or are allergic to kiwis, bananas, pineapples, tropical fruits, grapes, avocados, potatoes, hazelnuts, or water chestnuts.

Correct answer: A. Avoid the use of medication vials that have rubber stoppers.

If a client is allergic to latex and is at high risk for an allergic response, the nurse would use nonlatex gloves and latex-safe supplies, and would keep a latex-safe supply cart available in the client’s area. Any supplies or materials that contain latex would be avoided. These include blood pressure cuffs and medication vials with rubber stoppers that require puncture with a needle. It is not necessary to place the client in a private room.

Correct answer: D. Lyme disease is caused by a tick carried by deer.

Lyme disease is a multisystem infection that results from a bite by a tick carried by severalspecies of deer. Persons bitten by the Ixodes scapularis or I. pacificus tick can become infected with the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Toxoplasmosis is caused by the ingestion of cysts from contaminated cat feces. Histoplasmosis is caused by the inhalation of spores from bat or bird droppings. Lyme disease cannot be transmitted from one person to another.

Correct answer: C. Administer corticosteroids as prescribed for inflammation.

Scleroderma is a chronic connective tissue disease similar to systemic lupus erythematosus. Corticosteroids may be prescribed to treat inflammation. Topical agents may provide some relief from joint pain. Activity is encouraged as tolerated and the room temperature needs to be constant. Clients need to sit up for 1 to 2 hours after meals if esophageal involvement is present.

Correct answer: C. Inform the client to plan to have a blood test 4 to 6 weeks after a bite to detect the presence of the disease.

A blood test is available to detect Lyme disease; however, the test is not reliable if performed before 4 to 6 weeks following the tick bite. Antibody formation takes place in the following manner. Immunoglobulin M is detected 3 to 4 weeks after Lyme disease onset, peaks at 6 to 8 weeks, and then gradually disappears; immunoglobulin G is detected 2 to 3 months after infection and may remain elevated for years. Areas that ticks inhabit need to be avoided. Ticks should be removed with tweezers and then the area is washed with an antiseptic.

Correct answer: A. "I should not use insect repellents because it will attract the ticks."

In the prevention of Lyme disease, individuals need to be instructed to use an insect repellent on the skin and clothes when in an area where ticks are likely to be found. Long-sleeved tops and long pants, closed shoes, and a hat or cap should be worn. If possible, heavily wooded areas or areas with thick underbrush should be avoided. Socks can be pulled up and over the pant legs to prevent ticks from entering under clothing.

Correct answer: A. Positive punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions

Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions begin as red, dark blue, or purple macules on the lower legs that change into plaques. These large plaques ulcerate or open and drain. The lesions spread by metastasis through the upper body and then to the face and oral mucosa. They can move to the lymphatic system, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract. Late disease results in swelling and pain in the lower extremities, penis, scrotum, or face. Diagnosis is made by punch biopsy of cutaneous lesions and biopsy of pulmonary and gastrointestinal lesions.

Correct answer: B. Give the client a list of potential allergens if identified.

Skin testing involves administration of an allergen to the surface of the skin or into the dermis. Site, date, and time of the test must be recorded, and the client must return at a specific date and time for a follow-up site evaluation, even if no reaction is suspected; a list of potential allergens is identified. For the follow-up evaluation, the size of the site has to be measured and not estimated. After injection, clients only need to be monitored for about 30 minutes to assess for any adverse effects.

Correct answer: B. Bananas

Individuals who are allergic to kiwis, bananas, pineapples, tropical fruits, grapes, avocados, potatoes, hazelnuts, or water chestnuts are at risk for developing a latex allergy. This is thought to be the result of a possible cross-reaction between the food and the latex allergen.

Correct answer: D. That the client has developed another infection caused by leukopenic effects of the medication

Frequent side/adverse effects of this medication include leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and anemia. The client should be monitored routinely for signs and symptoms of infection.

Correct answer: C. Dysrhythmias

Aminoglycosides are administered to inhibit the growth of bacteria. Adverse effects of this medication include confusion, ototoxicity, renal toxicity, gastrointestinal irritation, palpitations (dysrhythmias), blood pressure changes, and hypersensitivity reactions.

Correct answer: B. Instruct the client to avoid exposure to the sun.

Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication. There is no reason for the client to restrict fluid intake; in fact, this could be harmful to the client. The medication is hepatotoxic, and the nurse monitors liver function. It is administered with food (not on an empty stomach) and antacids are avoided for 2 hours after taking the medication to ensure absorption. The client is also instructed to avoid alcohol. In addition, the client is instructed to avoid exposure to the sun because the medication increases photosensitivity.

Correct answer: A. Serum amylase level

Didanosine can cause pancreatitis. A serum amylase level that is increased to 1.5 to 2 times normal may signify pancreatitis in the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and is potentially fatal. The medication may have to be discontinued. The medication is also hepatotoxic and can result in liver failure.

Correct answer: C. Blood pressure

Hypertension can occur in a client taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and, because this client is also complaining of a headache, the blood pressure is the vitalsign to be monitored most closely. Other adverse effects include infection, nephrotoxicity, and hirsutism. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unrelated to the use of this medication.

Correct answer: B. Hearing loss

Amikacin (Amikin) is an aminoglycoside. Side/adverse effects of aminoglycosides include ototoxicity (hearing problems), confusion, disorientation, gastrointestinal irritation, palpitations, blood pressure changes, nephrotoxicity, and hypersensitivity. The nurse instructs the client to report hearing loss to the HCP immediately. Lethargy and muscle aches are not associated with the use of this medication. It is not necessary to contact the HCP immediately if nausea occurs. If nausea persists or results in vomiting, the HCP should be notified.

Correct answer: B. Gait

Stavudine is an antiretroviral used to manage human immunodeficiency virus infection in clients who do not respond to or who cannot tolerate conventional therapy. The medication can cause peripheral neuropathy, and the nurse should monitor the client’s gait closely and ask the client about paresthesia.

Correct answer: C. "You’re having difficulty sleeping?"

The correct option uses the therapeutic communication technique of restatement. Although restatement is a technique that has a prompting component to it, it repeats the client’s major theme, which assists the nurse to obtain a more specific perception of the problem from the client. The remaining options are not therapeutic responses since none encourage the client to expand on the problem. Offering personal experiences moves the focus away from the client and onto the nurse.

Correct answer: B. Denial

Denial is refusal to admit to a painful reality, which is treated as if it does not exist. In projection, a person unconsciously rejects emotionally unacceptable features and attributes them to other persons, objects, or situations. Regression allows the client to return to an earlier, more comforting, although less mature, way of behaving. Rationalization is justifying illogical or unreasonable ideas, actions, or feelings by developing acceptable explanations that satisfy the teller and the listener.

Correct answer: C. A willingness to participate in the planning of the care and treatment plan.

In general, clients seek voluntary admission. If a client seeks voluntary admission, the most likely expectation is that the client will participate in the treatment program since they are actively seeking help. The remaining options are not characteristics of this type of admission. Fearfulness, anger, and aggressiveness are more characteristic of an involuntary admission. Voluntary admission does not guarantee a client’s understanding of their illness, only of their desire for help.

Correct answer: A. Contact the client’s health care provider (HCP).

In general, clients seek voluntary admission. Voluntary clients have the right to demand and obtain release. The nurse needs to be familiar with the state and facility policies and procedures. The best nursing action is to contact the HCP, who has the authority to discuss discharge with the client. While arranging for safe transportation is appropriate it is premature in this situation and should be done only with the client’s permission. While it is appropriate to discuss why the client feels the need to leave and the possible outcomes of leaving against medical advice, attempting to get the client to agree to staying "a few more days" has little value and will not likely be successful. Many states require that the client submit a written release notice to the facility staff members, who reevaluate the client’s condition for possible conversion to involuntary status if necessary, according to criteria established by law. While this is a possibility, it should not be used as a threat to the client.

Correct answer: B. Monitor closely for harm to self or others

Involuntary admission is necessary when a person is a danger to self or others or is in need of psychiatric treatment regardless of the client’s willingness to consent to the hospitalization. A written request is a component of a voluntary admission. Providing written information regarding the illness is likely premature initially. The family may have had no role to play in the client’s admission.

Correct answer: C. Making appropriate referrals

Tasks of the termination phase include evaluating client performance, evaluating achievement of expected outcomes, evaluating future needs, making appropriate referrals, and dealing with the common behaviors associated with termination. The remaining options identify tasks appropriate for the working phase of the relationship.

Correct answer: A. "I cannot discuss any client situation with you."

The nurse is required to maintain confidentiality regarding the client and the client’s care. Confidentiality is basic to the therapeutic relationship and is a client’s right. The most appropriate response to the neighbor is the statement of that responsibility in a direct, but polite manner. A blunt statement that does not acknowledge why the nurse cannot reveal client information may be taken as disrespectful and uncaring. The remaining options identify statements that do not maintain client confidentiality.

Correct answer: A. False imprisonment

False imprisonment is an act with the intent to confine a person to a specific area. The nurse can be charged with false imprisonment if the nurse prohibits a client from leaving the hospital if the client has been admitted voluntarily and if no agency or legal policies exist for detaining the client. Assault and battery are related to the act of restraining the client in a situation that did not meet criteria for such an intervention. Libel and slander are not applicable here since the nurse did not write or verbally make untrue statements about the client.

Correct answer: D. Providing acknowledgment and feedback

Therapeutic communication techniques include listening, maintaining silence, maintaining neutral responses, using broad openings and open-ended questions, focusing and refocusing, restating, clarifying and validating, sharing perceptions, reflecting, providing acknowledgment and feedback, giving information, presenting reality, encouraging formulation of a plan of action, providing nonverbal encouragement, and summarizing. Asking why is often interpreted as being accusatory by the client and should also be avoided. Providing advice or giving approval or disapproval are barriers to communication.

Correct answer: B. Denial

Denial is refusal to admit to a painful reality and may be a response by a victim of sexual abuse. In this case the client is not acknowledging the trauma of the assault either verbally or nonverbally. Projection is transferring one’s internal feelings, thoughts, and unacceptable ideas and traits to someone else. Rationalization is justifying the unacceptable attributes about oneself. Intellectualization is the excessive use of abstract thinking or generalizations to decrease painful thinking.

Correct answer: D. Termination

In the termination phase, the relationship comes to a close. Ending treatment sometimes may be traumatic for clients who have come to value the relationship and the help. Because loss is an issue, any unresolved feelings related to loss may resurface during this phase. The remaining options are not specifically associated with this issue of unresolved feelings.

Correct answer: C. Inquiring about and examining the client’s feelings for any that may block adaptive coping

The client must first deal with feelings and negative responses before the client can work through the meaning of the crisis. The correct option pertains directly to the client’s feelings and is client-focused. The remaining options do not directly focus on or address the client’s feelings.

Correct answer: A. "Being respectful and concerned will ensure that I’m attentive to my clients’ rights."

The nurse needs to respect and have concern for the client; this is vital to protecting the client’s rights. While it is true the autonomy is a basic client right, there are other rights that must also be both respected and facilitated. State and federal laws do protect a client’s rights, but it is sensitivity to those rights that will ensure that the nurse secures these rights for the client. It is a fact that safeguarding a client’s rights is a nursing responsibility, but stating that fact does not show understanding or respect for the concept.

Correct answer: A. Acknowledging the contributions of each group member

In the termination stage, the group leader’s task is to acknowledge the contributions of each member and the experience of the group as a whole. In this stage, the group members prepare for separation and assist each other to prepare for the future. Acknowledging that the group has identified goals and encouraging group bonding both occur during the initialstage. Encouraging accomplishment of the group’s work is appropriate during the working stage.

Correct answer: A. The group explores members’ feelings about the group and the impending separation.

The stages of group development include the initialstage, the working stage, and the termination stage. During the initialstage, the group members become acquainted with each other, and some structuring of group norms, roles, and responsibilities takes place. During the initialstage, group interaction involves superficial conversation. During the working stage, the real work of the group is accomplished. During the termination stage, the group evaluates the experience and explores members’ feelings about the group and the impending separation.

Correct answer: C. Helping the client to examine dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs

Cognitive behavioral therapy is used to help the client identify and examine dysfunctional thoughts and to identify and examine values and beliefs that maintain these thoughts. The remaining options, while therapeutic in certain situations, are not the focus of cognitive behavioral therapy.

Correct answer: D. It emphasizes self-expression, self-exploration, and self-awareness in the present.

Gestalt therapy emphasizes self-expression, self-exploration, and self-awareness in the present. The client and therapist focus on everyday problems and try to solve them. Interpersonal group therapy promotes the individual’s comfort in the group, which then transfers to other relationships. In rational emotive therapy, the therapist focuses on how irrational beliefs and thoughts contribute to psychological distress. In Rogerian therapy, the therapist’s goal is to help others express their feelings toward one another during group sessions.

Correct answer: C. Admitting to having a problem

The first step in the 12-step program is to admit that a problem exists. Substituting other activities for gambling may be a strategy but it is not the first step. The remaining options are not realistic strategies for the initial step in a 12-step program.

Correct answer: A. A living, learning, or working environment

Milieu therapy, or "therapeutic community," has as its focus a living, learning, or working environment. Such therapy may be based on numerous therapeutic modalities ranging from structured behavioral therapy to spontaneous, humanistically oriented approaches. Although milieu therapy may include behavioral approaches, the correct option describes its primary focus.

Correct answer: A. Systematic desensitization

Systematic desensitization is a form of therapy used when the client is introduced to short periods of exposure to the phobic object while in a relaxed state. Exposure is gradually increased until the anxiety about or fear of the object or situation has ceased. Milieu management refers to providing a safe, therapeutic environment and is applicable to not just this scenario. The remaining options are incorrect since they do not involve the intervention described.

Correct answer: C. Thank the client for the input, but inform the client that now others need a chance to contribute.

If a client is monopolizing the group, the nurse must be direct and decisive. The best action is to thank the client and suggest that the client stop talking and try listening to others. Although telling the client to stop monopolizing in a firm but compassionate manner may be a direct response, the correct option is more specific and provides direction for the client. The remaining options are inappropriate since they are not directed towards helping the client in a therapeutic manner.

Correct answer: C. Milieu therapy

All treatment team members are viewed as significant and valuable to the client’s successful treatment outcomes in milieu therapy. Interpersonal therapy is based on a one-to-one or group therapy approach in which the therapist-client relationship is often used as a way for the client to examine other relationships in his or her life. Behavior modification is based on rewards and punishment. Rational emotive therapy deals with the correction of distorted thinking.

Correct answer: A. "Do you feel afraid that people are trying to hurt you?"

It is most therapeutic for the nurse to empathize with the client’s experience. The remaining options lack this connection with the client. Disagreeing with delusions may make the client more defensive, and the client may cling to the delusions even more. Encouraging discussion regarding the delusion is inappropriate.

Correct answer: D. Use an indirect light source and turn off the television.

Provision of a consistent daily routine and a low stimulating environment is important when a client is disoriented. Noise, including radio and television, may add to the confusion and disorientation. Moving the client next to the nurses’ station may become necessary but is not the initial action.

Correct answer: B. Social phobia

Social phobia is a fear of situations in which one might be embarrassed or criticized, such as the fear of speaking, performing, or eating in public. The person fears making a fool of oneself. Agoraphobia is a fear of open spaces and the fear of being trapped in a situation from which there may not be an escape. Claustrophobia is a fear of closed places. Clients with hypochondriacalsymptoms focus their anxiety on physical complaints and are preoccupied with their health.

Correct answer: C. Setting limits on the client’s behavior

Manic clients may be talkative and can dominate group meetings or therapy sessions by their excessive talking. If this occurs, the nurse initially would set limits on the client’s behavior. Initially, asking the client to leave the session or asking another person to escort the client out of the session is inappropriate. This may agitate the client and escalate the client’s behavior further. Barring the client from group sessions is also an inappropriate action because it violates the client’s right to receive treatment and is a threatening action.

Correct answer: D. Conversion disorder

A conversion disorder is the alteration or loss of a physical function that cannot be explained by any known pathophysiological mechanism. A conversion disorder is thought to be an expression of a psychological need or conflict. In this situation, the client witnessed an accident that was so psychologically painful that the client became blind. Psychosis is a state in which a person’s mental capacity to recognize reality, communicate, and relate to others is impaired, interfering with the person’s ability to deal with life’s demands. Repression is a coping mechanism in which unacceptable feelings are kept out of awareness. A dissociative disorder is a disturbance or alteration in the normally integrative functions of identity, memory, or consciousness.

Correct answer: A. Escort the client to their room, with the assistance of other staff.

The client is at risk for injury to self and others and should be escorted out of the dayroom. Seclusion is premature in this situation. Telling the client that the behavior is inappropriate has already been attempted by the nurse. Denying privileges may increase the agitation that already exists in this client.

Correct answer: C. Have the client state the consequences for behaving in ways that are viewed as unacceptable.

Interventions for dealing with the client exhibiting manipulative behavior include setting clear, consistent, and enforceable limits on manipulative behaviors; being clear with the client regarding the consequences of exceeding limits set; following through with the consequences in a nonpunitive manner; and assisting the client in identifying means of setting limits on personal behaviors. Ensuring that the client knows that he or she is not in charge of the nursing unit is inappropriate; power struggles need to be avoided. Enforcing rules and informing the client that he or she will not be allowed to attend therapy groups is a violation of a client’s rights.

Correct answer: A. "I can wait 3 to 4 days after intercourse to start taking these to prevent pregnancy."

Plan B is a series of contraceptive pills similar in composition to birth control pills that have been used for the past 30 years. Plan B is the brand name for levonorgestrel 0.75 mg. Pills are most effective if taken immediately after unprotected intercourse and then again 12 hours later. Males can purchase this contraceptive as long as they are over 18 years of age. Common side effects include nausea, breast tenderness, vertigo, and stomach pain.

Correct answer: C. Breast- or bottle-feeding plan.

Birth control plans are influenced primarily by whether the mother is breast- or bottle-feeding her infant. The maternal milk supply must be well established prior to the initiation of most hormonal birth control methods. Low-dose oral contraceptives would be the exception. Use of estrogen-/progesterone-based pills and progesterone-only pills are commonly initiated from 4 to 6 weeks postpartum because the milk supply is well established by this time. Prior experiences with birth control methods have an impact on the method chosen as do the preferences of the client’s partner; however, they are not the most influential factors. Desire to have another child in two years would make some methods, such as an IUD, less attractive but would still be secondary to the choice to breast-feed.

Correct answer: D. Ovulation usually occurs on day 14, plus or minus 2 days, before the onset of the next menstrual cycle.

For a client with a typical menstrual cycle of 28 days, ovulation usually occurs on day 14, plus or minus 2 days, before the onset of the next menstrual cycle. Stated another way, the menstrual period begins about 2 weeks after ovulation has occurred. Ovulation does not usually occur during the menses component of the cycle when the uterine lining is being shed. In most women, the ovum survives for about 12 to 24 hours after ovulation, during which time conception is possible. The basal body temperature rises 0.5�F to 1.0�F (0.28�C to 0.56�C) when ovulation occurs. Although some women experience some pelvic discomfort during ovulation (mittelschmerz), severe or unusual pain is rare. After ovulation, the cervical mucus is thin and copious.

Correct answer: C. Take a mild analgesic if needed for menstrual pain.

The nurse should instruct the client to take a mild analgesic, such as ibuprofen, if menstrual pain or "cramps" are present. The client should also eat foods rich in iron and should continue moderate exercise during menstruation, which increases abdominal tone. Avoiding cold foods will not decrease dysmenorrhea. Sexual intercourse is not prohibited during menstruation, but the male partner should wear a condom to prevent exposure to blood.

Correct answer: A. "Under ideal conditions, sperm can reach the ovum in 15 to 30 minutes, resulting in pregnancy."

Under ideal conditions, sperm can reach the ovum in 15 to 30 minutes. This is an important point to make with adolescents who may be sexually active. Many people believe that the time interval is much longer and that they can wait until after intercourse to take steps to prevent conception. Without protection, pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases can occur. When using the abstinence or calendar method, the couple should abstain from intercourse on the days of the menstrual cycle when the woman is most likely to conceive. Using a 28-day cycle as an example, a couple should abstain from coitus 3 to 4 days before ovulation (days 10 through 14) and 3 to 4 days after ovulation (days 15 through 18). Sperm from a healthy male can remain viable for 24 to 72 hours in the female reproductive tract. If the female client ovulates after coitus, there is a possibility that fertilization can occur. Before fertilization, the ovum and sperm each contain 23 chromosomes. After fertilization, the conceptus contains 46 chromosomes unless there is a chromosomal abnormality.

Correct answer: C. Hypertension.

Before advising a client about oral contraceptives, the nurse needs to assess the client for signs and symptoms of hypertension. Clients who have hypertension, thrombophlebitis, obesity, or a family history of cerebral or cardiovascular accident are poor candidates for oral contraceptives. In addition, women who smoke, are older than 40 years of age, or have a history of pulmonary disease should be advised to use a different method. Iron-deficiency anemia, dysmenorrhea, and acne are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives. Iron-deficiency anemia is a common disorder in young women. Oral contraceptives decrease the amount of menstrual flow and thus decrease the amount of iron lost through menses, thereby providing a beneficial effect when used by clients with anemia. Low-dose oral contraceptives to prevent ovulation may be effective in decreasing the severity of dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation). Dysmenorrhea is thought to be caused by the release of prostaglandins in response to tissue destruction during the ischemic phase of the menstrual cycle. Use of oral contraceptives commonly improves facial acne.

Correct answer: D. Ovarian cancer.

The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction when the client says that one of the adverse effects of oral contraceptive use is ovarian cancer. Some studies suggest that ovarian and endometrial cancers are reduced in women using oral contraceptives. Other adverse effects of oral contraceptives include weight gain, nausea, headache, breakthrough bleeding, and monilial infections. The most serious adverse effect is thrombophlebitis.

Correct answer: A. Using a spermicide with the condom offers added protection against pregnancy.

The typical failure rate of a condom is approximately 12% to 14%. Adding a spermicide can decrease this potential failure rate because it offers additional protection against pregnancy. Natural skin condoms do not offer the same protection against sexually transmitted diseases caused by viruses as latex condoms do. Unlike latex condoms, natural skin (membrane) condoms do not prevent the passage of viruses. Most condom users report decreased penile gland sensitivity. However, some users do report an increased sensitivity or allergic reaction (such as a rash) to latex, necessitating the use of another method of family planning or a switch to a natural skin condom.

Correct answer: A. "If I gain or lose 20 lb (9.1 kg), I can still use the same diaphragm."

The client would need additional instructions when she says that she can still use the same diaphragm if she gains or loses 20 lb (9.1 kg). Gaining or losing more than 15 lb (6.8 kg) can change the pelvic and vaginal contours to such a degree that the diaphragm will no longer protect the client against pregnancy. The diaphragm can be used for 2 to 3 years if it is cared for and well protected in its case. The client should be refitted for another diaphragm after pregnancy and childbirth because weight changes and physiologic changes of pregnancy can alter the pelvic and vaginal contours, thus affecting the effectiveness of the diaphragm. The client should use a spermicidal jelly or cream before inserting the diaphragm.

Correct answer: C. My fallopian tubes will be tied off through a small abdominal incision."

Tubal ligation, a female sterilization procedure, involves ligation (tying off) or cauterization of the fallopian tubes through a small abdominal incision (laparotomy). Reversal of a tubal ligation is not easily done, and the pregnancy success rate after reversal is about 30%. After a tubal ligation, the client may engage in intercourse 2 to 3 days after the procedure. The ovaries are not generally removed during a tubal ligation. An oophorectomy involves removal of one or both ovaries.

Correct answer: C. Take her temperature at the same time every morning before getting out of bed.

The basal body temperature method requires that the client take her temperature each morning before getting out of bed, preferably at the same time each day before eating or any other activity. Just before the day of ovulation, the temperature falls by 0.5�F (0.28�C). At the time of ovulation, the temperature rises 0.4�F to 0.8�F (0.22�C to 0.44�C) because of increased progesterone secretion in response to the luteinizing hormone. The temperature remains higher for the rest of the menstrual cycle. The client should keep a diary of about 6 months of menstrual cycles to calculate "safe" days. There is no mucus for the first 3 or 4 days after menses, and then thick, sticky mucus begins to appear. As estrogen increases, the mucus changes to clear, slippery, and stretchy. This condition, termed spinnbarkeit, is present during ovulation. After ovulation, the mucus decreases in amount and becomes thick and sticky again until menses. Because the ovum typically survives about 24 hours and sperm can survive up to 72 hours, couples must avoid coitus when the cervical mucus is copious and for about 3 to 4 days before and after ovulation to avoid a pregnancy.

Correct answer: A. Describe each of the potential causes and possible treatment modalities.

By the end of the first visit, the couple should be able to identify potential causes and treatment modalities for infertility. If their evaluation shows that a treatment or procedure may help them to conceive, the couple must then decide how to proceed, considering all of the various treatments before selecting one. Treatments can be difficult, painful, or risky. The first visit is not the appropriate time to decide on a treatment plan because the couple needs time to adjust to the diagnosis of infertility, a crisis for most couples. Although the couple may be in a hurry for definitive therapy, a thorough assessment of both partners is necessary before a treatment plan can be initiated. The success rate for achieving a pregnancy depends on both the cause and the effectiveness of the treatment, and in some cases it may be only as high as 30%. The couple may desire information about alternatives to treatment, but insufficient data are available to suggest that a specific treatment modality may not be successful. Suggesting that the couple consider adoption at this time may inappropriately imply that the couple has no other choice. If a specific therapy may result in a pregnancy, the couple should have time to consider their options. After a thorough evaluation, adoption may be considered by the couple as an alternative to the costly, time-consuming, and sometimes painful treatments for infertility.

Correct answer: C. Both ova and sperm are instilled into the open end of a fallopian tube."

The client’s understanding of the procedure is demonstrated by the statement describing IVF as a technique that involves bypassing the blocked or absent fallopian tubes. The primary health care provider removes the ova by laparoscope- or ultrasound-guided transvaginal retrieval and mixes them with prepared sperm from the woman’s partner or a donor. Two days later, up to four embryos are returned to the uterus to increase the likelihood of a successful pregnancy. Supplemental progesterone, not estrogen, is given to enhance the implantation process. Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) and tubal embryo transfer have a higher pregnancy rate than IVF. However, these procedures cannot be used for clients who have blocked or absent fallopian tubes because the fertilized ova are placed into the fallopian tubes, subsequently entering the uterus naturally for implantation. In IVF, fertilization of the ova by the sperm occurs outside the client’s body. In GIFT, both ova and sperm are implanted into the fallopian tubes and allowed to fertilize within the woman’s body.

Correct answer: C. "What is it that concerns you about pregnancy, labor, and childbirth?"

The client is verbalizing concerns about death during childbirth, thus providing the nurse with an opportunity to gather additional data. Asking the client about these concerns would be most helpful to determine the client’s knowledge base and to provide the nurse with the opportunity to answer any questions and clarify any misconceptions. Although the maternal mortality rate is low in the United States and Canada, maternal deaths do occur, even with modern technology. Leading causes of maternal mortality in the United States and Canada include embolism, pregnancy-induced hypertension, hemorrhage, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. Telling the client not to concern herself about what has happened in the past is not useful. It only serves to discount the client’s concerns and block further therapeutic communication. Also, postponing or ignoring the client’s need for a discussion about complications of pregnancy may further increase the client’s anxiety.

Correct answer: B. As ovulation approaches, cervical mucus is abundant and clear.

As ovulation approaches, cervical mucus is abundant and clear, resembling raw egg white. Ovulation generally occurs 14 days (�2 days) before the beginning of menses. During the luteal phase of the cycle, which occurs after ovulation, the cervical mucus is thick and sticky, making it difficult for sperm to pass. Changes in the cervical mucus are related to the influences of estrogen and progesterone. Cervical mucus is always present.

Correct answer: C. Place the condom over the erect penis before coitus.

To ensure maximum effectiveness, the condom should always be placed over the erect penis before coitus. Some couples find condom use objectionable because foreplay may have to be interrupted to apply the condom. The penis, covered by the condom, should be withdrawn before the penis becomes flaccid. Otherwise sperm may escape from the condom, providing an opportunity for possible fertilization. Rather than having the condom pulled tightly over the penis before coitus, space should be left at the tip of the penis to allow the condom to hold the sperm. The client does not need a prescription for a condom with nonoxynol 9 because these are sold over the counter

Correct answer: C. "One possible adverse effect is absence of a menstrual period."

With medroxyprogesterone acetate, irregular menstrual cycles and amenorrhea are common adverse effects. Other adverse effects include weight gain, breakthrough bleeding, headaches, and depression. This method requires deep intramuscular injections every 3 months. The first injection should occur within 5 days after menses.

Correct answer: A. "Women of African descent are at the greatest risk for osteoporosis."

Small-boned, fair-skinned women of northern European descent are at the greatest risk for osteoporosis, not women of African descent. One standard serving of yogurt is the equivalent of one glass of milk. Women who do not eat dairy products, such as women who are lactose intolerant, should consider using calcium supplements. Inadequate lifetime intake of calcium is a major risk factor for osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy, or some of the newer medications that are not estrogen based, can greatly reduce the incidence of osteoporosis

Correct answer: B. Ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) may be used to treat Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections.

Ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) may be used to treat N. gonorrhoeae infections and is commonly combined with doxycycline hyclate (Vibramycin). Both the client and her partner should be treated if gonorrhea is present. Acyclovir (Zovirax) can be used to treat herpes genitalis; however, the drug does not cure the disease. C. trachomatis infections are usually treated with antibiotics such as doxycycline or azithromycin (Zithromax). Metronidazole (Flagyl) is used to treat trichomoniasis vaginitis, not condylomata acuminata (genital warts).

Correct answer: D. Seminal fluid with an alkaline pH.

The client needs further instruction when he says that one cause of male infertility is decreased sperm count due to seminal fluid that has an alkaline pH. A slightly alkaline pH is necessary to protect the sperm from the acidic secretions of the vagina and is a normal finding. An alkaline pH is not associated with decreased sperm count. However, seminal fluid that is abnormal in amount, consistency, or chemical composition suggests obstruction, inflammation, or infection, which can decrease sperm production. The typical number of sperm produced during ejaculation is 400 million. Frequent exposure to heat sources, such as saunas and hot tubs, can decrease sperm production, as can abnormal hormonal stimulation. Immunologic factors produced by the man against his own sperm (autoantibodies) or by the woman can cause the sperm to clump or be unable to penetrate the ovum, thus contributing to infertility.

Correct answer: C. Bicornuate uterus.

A bicornuate uterus has a "Y" shape and appears to be a double uterus but in fact has only one cervix. A septate uterus contains a septum that extends from the fundus to the cervix, thus dividing the uterus into two separate compartments. A double uterus has two uteri, each of which has a cervix. A uterus didelphys occurs when both uteri of a double uterus are fully formed.

Correct answer: D. "If my baby does not move, I need to call my health care provider."

At 16 weeks’ gestation, a primipara will not feel the baby moving. Quickening occurs between 18 and 20 weeks’ gestation for a primipara and between 16 and 18 weeks’ gestation for a multipara. Leaking fluid from the vagina should not occur until labor begins and may indicate a rupture of the membranes. Bleeding and a fever are complications that warrant further evaluation and should be reported at any time during the pregnancy.

Correct answer: D. Eat small, frequent meals.

Consuming most liquids between meals rather than at the same time as eating is an excellent strategy to deter nausea and vomiting in pregnancy but does not relieve heartburn. During the third trimester, progesterone causes relaxation of the sphincter and the pressure of the fetus against the stomach increases the potential of heartburn. Avoiding highly seasoned foods, remaining in an upright position after eating, and eating small, frequent meals are strategies to prevent heartburn.

Correct answer: D. "I am considered anemic if my hemoglobin is below 11 g/dL (110 g/L)."

Iron deficiency anemia is caused by insufficient iron stores in the body, poor iron content in the diet of the pregnant woman, or both. Other thalassemias and sickle cell anemia, rather than iron deficiency anemia, can be associated with ethnicity but occur primarily in clients of African or Mediterranean origin. Because red blood cells increase by about 50% during pregnancy, many clients will need to take supplemental iron to avoid iron deficiency anemia. A pregnant client is considered anemic when the hemoglobin is below 11 mg/dL (110 g/dL). In most types of anemia, the heart must pump more often and harder to deliver oxygen to cells.

Correct answer: D. Experiencing ambivalence about pregnancy.

Many women in their first trimester feel ambivalent about being pregnant because of the significant life changes that occur for most women who have a child. Ambivalence can be expressed as a list of positive and negative consequences of having a child, consideration of financial and social implications, and possible career changes. During the second trimester, the infant becomes a separate individual to the mother. The mother will begin to enjoy the role of nurturer postpartum. During the third trimester, the mother begins to prepare for parenthood and all of the tasks that parenthood includes.

Correct answer: D. Group B Streptococcus.

Group B Streptococcus is a risk factor for all pregnant women and is not limited to those carrying twins. The multiple gestation client is at risk for preterm labor because uterine distention, a major factor initiating preterm labor, is more likely with a twin gestation. The normal uterus is only able to distend to a certain point and when that point is reached, labor may be initiated. Twin-to-twin transfusion drains blood from one twin to the second and is a problem that may occur with multiple gestation. The donor twin may become growth restricted and can have oligohydramnios while the recipient twin may become polycythemic with polyhydramnios and develop heart failure. Anemia is a common problem with multiple gestation clients. The mother is commonly unable to consume enough protein, calcium, and iron to supply her needs and those of the fetuses. A maternal hemoglobin level below 11 mg/dL (110 g/L) is considered anemic.

Correct answer: A. Probable.

The plan of care should reflect that this woman is experiencing probable signs of pregnancy. She may be pregnant but the signs and symptoms may have another etiology. An enlarging abdomen and a positive pregnancy test may also be caused by tumors, hydatidiform mole, or other disease processes as well as pregnancy. Changes in the pigmentation of the face may also be caused by oral contraceptive use. Positive signs of pregnancy are considered diagnostic and include evident fetal heartbeat, fetal movement felt by a trained examiner, and visualization of the fetus with ultrasound confirmation. Presumptive signs are subjective and can have another etiology. These signs and symptoms include lack of menses, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, urinary frequency, and breast changes. The word "diagnostic" is not used to describe the condition of pregnancy.

Correct answer: A. If I need to have a bowel movement, sennosides (Ex-Lax) are preferred."

Ex-Lax is considered too abrasive to use during pregnancy. In most instances, a Fleet enema will be given before Ex-Lax. Medications for constipation that are considered safe during pregnancy include compounds that produce bulk, such as Metamucil and Citrucel. Colace, Dulcolax, and Milk of Magnesia can also be used. Mineral oil prevents the absorption of vitamins and minerals within the GI tract. The strategies for heartburn are considered safe and Tylenol may be used as an over-the-counter analgesic.

Correct answer: A. It has a high degree of accuracy within 1 week after ovulation.

The radioimmunoassay pregnancy test, which uses an antiserum with specificity for the b-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood plasma, is highly accurate within 1 week after ovulation. The test is performed in a laboratory. Over-the-counter or home pregnancy tests are performed on urine and use the hemagglutination inhibition method. Radioimmunoassay tests usually use blood serum. A positive pregnancy test is considered a probable sign of pregnancy. Certain conditions other than pregnancy, such as choriocarcinoma, can cause increased hCG levels.

Correct answer: A. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

The hormone analyzed in most pregnancy tests is hCG. In the pregnant woman, trace amounts of hCG appear in the serum as early as 24 to 48 hours after implantation owing to the trophoblast production of this hormone. Prolactin, follicle-stimulating hormone, and luteinizing hormone are not used to detect pregnancy. Prolactin is the hormone secreted by the pituitary gland to prepare the breasts for lactation. Follicle-stimulating hormone is involved in follicle maturation during the menstrual cycle. Luteinizing hormone is responsible for stimulating ovulation.

Correct answer: B. Testosterone.

The placenta does not produce testosterone. Human placental lactogen, hCG, estrogen, and progesterone are hormones produced by the placenta during pregnancy. The hormone hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone early in the pregnancy until the placenta can assume this role. Estrogen results in uterine and breast enlargement. Progesterone aids in maintaining the endometrium, inhibiting uterine contractility, and developing the breasts for lactation. The placenta also produces some nutrients for the embryo and exchanges oxygen, nutrients, and waste products through the chorionic villi.

Correct answer: D. Both of the above

Although ultrasounds are not considered part of routine care, the ultrasound is able to confirm the pregnancy, identify the major anatomic features of the fetus and possible abnormalities, and determine the gestational age by measuring crown-to-rump length of the embryo during the first trimester. At this time, the ultrasound cannot confirm that the fetus is viable. The ultrasound will provide information about fetal position; however, this information would be more important later in the pregnancy, not during the first trimester. The ultrasound would provide no information about nutrient supply for the fetus.

Correct answer: A. "Yes it is true. How does that make you feel?"

This client is expressing a feeling of surprise about having a baby. Therefore, the nurse’s best response would be to confirm the pregnancy, which is something that the client already suspects, and then ascertain how the client is feeling now that the suspicion is confirmed. Studies have shown that a common reaction to pregnancy is summarized as ambivalence or "someday, but not now." Such feelings are normal and are experienced by many women early in pregnancy. Offering a pamphlet on pregnancy does not respond to the client’s feelings. Telling the client that she should be delighted ignores, rather than addresses, the client’s feelings. Also, doing so imposes the nurse’s opinion on the client. Ambivalence is a common reaction to pregnancy. Telling the client that she should be delighted may lead to feelings of guilt. Asking the client if she and her husband were trying to have a baby is a "yes-no" question and is not helpful. In addition, it ignores the client’s underlying feelings.

Correct answer: A. Normal ambivalence.

Women normally experience ambivalence when pregnancy is confirmed, even if the pregnancy was planned. Although the client’s culture may play a role in openly accepting the pregnancy, most new mothers who have been ambivalent initially accept the reality by the end of the first trimester. Ambivalence also may be expressed throughout the pregnancy; this is believed to be related to the amount of physical discomfort. The nurse should become concerned and perhaps contact a social worker if the client expresses ambivalence in the third trimester. The client’s statement reflects ambivalence, not fear. There is no evidence to suggest or imply that the client is rejecting the fetus. The client’s statement reflects ambivalence about the pregnancy, not her ability to care for the newborn.

Correct answer: D. Couvade syndrome.

Couvade syndrome refers to the situation in which the expectant father experiences some of the discomforts of pregnancy along with the pregnant woman as a means of identifying with the pregnancy. Ptyalism is the term for excessive salivation. Mittelschmerz is the lower abdominal discomfort felt by some women during ovulation. Pica refers to an oral craving for substances such as clay or starch that some pregnant clients experience.

Correct answer: B. "You should abstain from drinking alcoholic beverages."

Maternal alcohol use may result in fetal alcohol syndrome, marked by mild to moderate mental retardation, physical growth retardation, central nervous system disorders, and feeding difficulties. Because there is no definitive answer as to how much alcohol can be safely consumed by a pregnant woman, it is recommended that pregnant clients be taught to abstain from drinking alcohol during pregnancy. Smoking and other medications also may affect the fetus.

Correct answer: A. At about the level of the client’s umbilicus

Measurement of the client’s fundal height is a gross estimate of fetal gestational age. At 20 weeks’ gestation, the fundal height should be at about the level of the client’s umbilicus. The fundus typically is over the symphysis pubis at 12 weeks. A fundal height measurement between these two areas would suggest a fetus with a gestational age between 12 and 20 weeks. The fundal height increases approximately 1 cm/week after 20 weeks’ gestation. The fundus typically reaches the xiphoid process at approximately 36 weeks’ gestation. A fundal height between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process would suggest a fetus with a gestational age between 20 and 36 weeks. The fundus then commonly returns to about 4 cm below the xiphoid owing to lightening at 40 weeks. Additionally, pressure on the diaphragm occurs late in pregnancy. Therefore, a fundal height measurement near the xiphoid process with diaphragmatic compression suggests a fetus near the gestational age of 36 weeks or older.

Correct answer: C. The volume of amniotic fluid needed for testing will be available by 15 weeks.

The volume of fluid needed for amniocentesis is 15 mL and this is usually available at 15 weeks’ gestation. Fetal development continues throughout the prenatal period. Cells necessary for testing for Hemophilia A are available during the entire pregnancy but are not accessible by amniocentesis until 12 weeks’ gestation. Anomalies are not associated with amniocentesis testing.

Correct answer: A. "Although it varies, a gain of 25 to 35 lb (11.4 to 14.5 kg) is about average."

The National Academy of Sciences Institute of Medicine and Health Canada recommend that women gain 25 to 35 lb (11.5 to 14.5 kg) during pregnancy. The pattern of weight gain is as important as the total amount of weight gained. Underweight women and women carrying twins should have a greater weight gain. Typically, women should gain 3.5 lb (1.6 kg) during the first trimester and then 1 lb (0.45 kg)/week during the remainder of the pregnancy (24 weeks) for a total of about 27 to 28 lb (12.2 to 12.7 kg). A weight gain of only 6.6 lb (3 kg) in the second and third trimesters is not normal because the client should be gaining about 1 lb (0.45 kg)/week, or 12 lb (5.4 kg) during the second and third trimesters. Gaining 12 lb (5.4 kg) during each trimester would total 36 lb (16.2 kg), which is slightly more than the recommended weight gain. In addition, nausea and vomiting during the first trimester can contribute to a lack of appetite and smaller weight gain during this trimester.

Correct answer: D. Spinach.

Green, leafy vegetables, such as asparagus, spinach, brussel sprouts, and broccoli, are rich sources of folic acid. The pregnant woman needs to eat foods high in folic acid to prevent folic acid deficits, which may result in neural tube defects in the newborn. A well-balanced diet must include whole grains, dairy products, and fresh fruits; however, bananas are rich in potassium, seafood is rich in iodine, and yogurt is rich in calcium, not folic acid.

Correct answer: B. Egg yolks and squash.

Egg yolks and squash and other yellow vegetables are rich sources of vitamin A. Pregnant women should avoid megadoses of vitamin A because fetal malformations may occur. Buttermilk and cheese are good sources of calcium. Strawberries, broccoli, citrus fruits (such as oranges), and tomatoes are good sources of vitamin C, not vitamin A.